Interesting. This might sounds like a stupid questions, but in terms of how these indices are collated, how much of the house price data is represented by foreclosed properties versus non foreclosed properties, and how has this changed over time in the series? My understanding that most of the US housing price data is currently dominated by foreclosure sales (i.e. at very depressed prices) which, over time, one would expect to be cleared out. On a more positive note, at least net household formation in the US is still growing due to immigration etc. Appartently, the divorce rate is now bouncing back as the economy improves and people can "afford" to get divorced. Also, as the labour market continues its slow, if erratic, improvement, more younger folk will leave home ...